Why are mortgage loan interest rates higher for fixed rate mortgages held for longer periods of time? - arm vs fixed mortgage
Sorry if this sounds like a silly question, but I do not understand. For example, say why 30 years fixed mortgage interest rates, the highest rates of mortgages, compared with a 15, and why are 15 years fixed-rate mortgage is higher than the mortgage rate variable? It seems that the lender to accept a higher risk with an ARM versus a mortgage fixed interest rate, and they should pay a higher rate (eg, comparing this situation with a major car loan a used car loan - the risk is in a car loan?
Risk can mean a fixed rate equivalent to 30 to 15 - most of borrower still does not understand, however, his arm was so low.
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